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篇1:TOEFL托福阅读理解真题整合
托福阅读真题1
A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire that provides information concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the best-known surveys are the Gallup poll and the Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during presidential campaigns knows, these polls have become an important part of political life in the United States.
North Americans are familiar with the many person-on-the-street interviews on local television news shows. While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not necessarily an accurate indication of public opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only those people who appear at a certain location. Thus, such samples can be biased in favor of commuters, middle-class shoppers, or factory workers, depending on which area the newspeople select. Second, television interviews tend to attract outgoing people who are willing to appear on the air, while they frighten away others who may feel intimidated by a camera. A survey must be based on a precise, representative sampling if it is to genuinely reflect a broad range of the population.
In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercise great care in the wording of questions. An effective survey question must be simple and clear enough for people to understand it. It must also be specific enough so that there are no problems in interpreting the results. Even questions that are less structured must be carefully phrased in order to elicit the type of information desired. Surveys can be indispensable sources of information, but only if the sampling is done properly and the questions are worded accurately.
There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionnaire. Each of these forms of survey research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain a high response rate because people find it more difficult to turn down a personal request for an interview than to throw away a written questionnaire. In addition, an interviewer can go beyond written questions and probe for a subject's underlying feelings and reasons. However, questionnaires have the advantage of being cheaper and more consistent.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The history of surveys in North America
(B) The principles of conducting surveys
(C) Problems associated with interpreting surveys
(D) The importance of polls in American political life
2. The word they in line 8 refers to
(A) North Americans
(B) news shows
(C) interviews
(D) opinions
3. According to the passage , the main disadvantage of person-on-the-street interviews is that
they
(A) are not based on a representative sampling
(B) are used only on television
(C) are not carefully worded
(D) reflect political opinions
4. The word precise in line 13 is closest in meaning to
(A) planned
(B) rational
(C) required
(D) accurate
5. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is most important for an effective survey?
(A) A high number of respondents
(B) Carefully worded questions
(C) An interviewer's ability to measure respondents' feelings
(D) A sociologist who is able to interpret the results
6. The word exercise in line 15 is closest in meaning to
(A) utilize
(B) consider
(C) design
(D) defend
7. The word elicit in line 19 is closest in meaning to
(A) compose
(B) rule out
(C) predict
(D) bring out
8. It can be inferred from the passage that one reason that sociologists may become frustrated
with questionnaires is that
(A) respondents often do not complete and return questionnaires
(B) questionnaires are often difficult to read
(C) questionnaires are expensive and difficult to distribute
(D) respondents are too eager to supplement questions with their own opinions
9. According to the passage , one advantage of live interviews over questionnaires is that live
interviews
(A) cost less
(B) can produce more information
(C) are easier to interpret
(D) minimize the influence of the researcher
10. The word probe in line 26 is closest in meaning to
(A) explore
(B) influence
(C) analyze
(D) apply
11. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage ?
(A) Survey (line 1)
(B) Public opinion (line 8)
(C) Representative sampling (line 13)
(D) Response rate (line 24)
PASSAGE 80 BCADB ADABA A
托福阅读真题2
The largest of the giant gas planets, Jupiter, with a volume 1,300 times greater than Earth's, contains more than twice the mass of all the other planets combined. It is thought to be a gaseous and fluid planet without solid surfaces, Had it been somewhat more massive, Jupiter might have attained internal temperatures as high as the ignition point for nuclear reactions, and it would have flamed as a star in its own right. Jupiter and the other giant planets are of a low-density type quite distinct from the terrestrial planets: they are composed predominantly of such substances as hydrogen, helium, ammonia, and methane, unlike terrestrial planets. Much of Jupiter's interior might be in the form of liquid, metallic hydrogen. Normally, hydrogen is a gas, but under pressures of millions of kilograms per square centimeter, which exist in the deep interior of Jupiter, the hydrogen atoms might lock together to form a liquid with the properties of a metal. Some scientists believe that the innermost core of Jupiter might be rocky, or metallic like the core of Earth.
Jupiter rotates very fast, once every 9.8 hours. As a result, its clouds, which are composed largely of frozen and liquid ammonia, have been whipped into alternating dark and bright bands that circle the planet at different speeds in different latitudes. Jupiter's puzzling Great Red Spot changes size as it hovers in the Southern Hemisphere. Scientists speculate it might be a gigantic hurricane, which because of its large size (the Earth could easily fit inside it), lasts for hundreds of years.
Jupiter gives off twice as much heat as it receives from the Sun. Perhaps this is primeval heat or heat generated by the continued gravitational contraction of the planet. Another starlike characteristic of Jupiter is its sixteen natural satellites, which, like a miniature model of the Solar System, decrease in density with distance — from rocky moons close to Jupiter to icy moons farther away. If Jupiter were about 70 times more massive, it would have become a star, Jupiter is the best-preserved sample of the early solar nebula, and with its satellites, might contain the most important clues about the origin of the Solar System.
1. The word attained in line 4 is closest in meaning to
(A) attempted
(B) changed
(C) lost
(D) reached
2. The word flamed in line 5 is closest in meaning to
(A) burned
(B) divided
(C) fallen
(D) grown
3. The word they in line 7 refers to
(A) nuclear reactions
(B) giant planets
(C) terrestrial
(D) substances
4. According to the passage , hydrogen can become a metallic-like liquid when it is
(A) extremely hot
(B) combined with helium
(C) similar to atmospheres
(D) under great pressures
5. According to the passage , some scientists believe Jupiter and Earth are similar in that they
both have
(A) solid surfaces
(B) similar masses
(C) similar atmospheres
(D) metallic cores
6. The clouds surrounding Jupiter are mostly composed of
(A) ammonia
(B) helium
(C) hydrogen
(D) methane
7. It can be inferred from the passage that the appearance of alternating bands circling Jupiter is
caused by
(A) the Great Red Spot
(B) heat from the Sun
(C) the planet's fast rotation
(D) Storms from the planet's Southern Hemisphere
8. The author uses the word puzzling in line 17 to suggest that the Great Red Spot is
(A) the only spot of its kind
(B) not well understood
(C) among the largest of such spots
(D) a problem for the planet's continued existence
9. Paragraph 3 supports which of the following conclusions?
(A) Jupiter gives off twice as much heat as the Sun.
(B) Jupiter has a weaker gravitational force than the other planets.
(C) Scientists believe that Jupiter was once a star.
(D) Scientists might learn about the beginning of the Solar System by Studying Jupiter.
10. Why does the author mention primeval heat (lines 21)?
(A) To provide evidence that Jupiter is older than the Sun
(B) To provide evidence that Jupiter is older than the other planets
(C) To suggest a possible explanation for the number of satellites that Jupiter has
(D) To suggest a possible source of the quantity of heat that Jupiter gives off
11. According to the passage , Jupiter's most distant moon is
(A) the least dense
(B) the largest
(C) warm on the surface
(D) very rocky on the surface
12. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage ?
(A) If Jupiter had fewer satellites, it would be easier for scientists to study the planet itself.
(B) If Jupiter had had more mass, it would have developed internal nuclear reactions.
(C) If Jupiter had been smaller, it would have become a terrestrial planet.
(D) if Jupiter were larger, it would give off much less heat
PASSAGE 81 DABDD ACBDD AB.
托福阅读真题3
Ethology is concerned with the study of adaptive, or survival, value of behavior and its evolutionary history. Ethological theory began to be applied to research on children in the 1960's but has become even more influential today. The origins of ethology can be traced back to the work of Darwin. Its modern foundations were laid by two European zoologists, Konrad Lorenz and Niko Tinbergen.
Watching the behaviors diverse animal species in their natural habitats, Lorenz, and Tinbergen observed behavior patterns that promote survival. The most well-known of these is imprinting, the early following behavior of certain baby birds that ensures that the young will stay close to their mother and be fed and protected from danger. Imprinting takes place during an early, restricted time period of development. If the mother goose is not present during this time, but an object resembling her in important features is, young goslings may imprint on it instead. Observations of imprinting led to major concept that has been applied in child development — the critical period. It refers to a limited times span during which the child is biologically prepared to acquire certain adaptive behaviors but needs the support of suitably stimulating environment. Many researchers have conducted studies to find out whether complex cognitive and social behaviors must be learned during restricted time periods. For example, if children are deprived of adequate food or physical and social stimulation during the early years of life, will their intelligence be permanently impaired? If language is not mastered during the preschool years, is the child's capacity to acquire it reduced?
Inspired by observations of imprinting, in 1969 the British psychoanalyst John Bowlby applied ethological theory to the understanding of the relationship between an infant and its parents. He argued that attachment behaviors of babies, such as smiling, babbling, grasping, and crying, are built-in social signals that encourage the parents to approach, care for, and interact with the baby. By keeping a parent near, these behaviors help ensure that the baby will be fed, protected from danger, and provided with the stimulation and affection necessary for healthy growth. The development of attachment in human infants is a lengthy process involving changes in psychological structures that lead to a deep affectional tie between parent and baby.
1. What was Darwin's contribution to ethology?
(A) Darwin improved on the original principles of ethology.
(B) Darwin was the professor who taught Lorenz and Tinbergen.
(C) Darwin's work provided the basis for ethology.
(D) Darwin was the first person to apply ethological theory to children.
2. The word diverse in line 6 is closest in meaning to
(A) small
(B) varied
(C) wild
(D) particular
3. The word ensures in line 8 is closest in meaning to
(A) guarantees
(B) proves
(C) teaches
(D) assumes
4. According to the passage , if a mother goose is not present during the time period when
imprinting takes place, which of the following will most likely occur?
(A) The gosling will not imprint on any object.
(B) The gosling may not find a mate when it matures.
(C) The mother will later imprint on the gosling.
(D) The gosling may imprint on another object.
5. The word it in line 12 refers to
(A) development
(B) goose
(C) time
(D) object
6. The word suitably in line 16 is closest in meaning to
(A) willingly
(B) moderately
(C) appropriately
(D) emotionally
7. The author mentions all of the following as attachment behaviors of human infants EXCEPT
(A) grasping
(B) crying
(C) eating
(D) smiling
8. According to the passage , attachment behaviors of infants are intended to
(A) get the physical, emotional and social needs of the infant met
(B) allow the infant to become imprinted on objects that resemble the parent
(C) provide the infant with a means of self-stimulation
(D) prepare the infant to cope with separation
9. The phrase affectional tie in line 30 is closest in meaning to
(A) cognitive development
(B) emotional attachment
(C) psychological need
(D) behavioral change
10. It can be inferred from the passage that ethological theory assumes that
(A) to learn about human behavior only human subjects should be studied
(B) failure to imprint has no influence on intelligence
(C) the notion of critical periods applies only to animals
(D) there are similarities between animal and human behavior
PASSAGE 82 CBADD CCABD
篇2:托福阅读理解真题整合
In the North American colonies, red ware, a simple pottery fired at low temperatures, and stone ware, a strong, impervious grey pottery fired at high temperatures, were produced from two different native clays. These kinds of pottery were produced to supplement imported European pottery. When the American Revolution (1775-1783) interrupted the flow of the superior European ware, there was incentive for American potters to replace the imports with comparable domestic goods. Stoneware, which had been simple, utilitarian kitchenware, grew increasingly ornate throughout the nineteenth century, and in addition to the earlier scratched and drawn designs, three-dimensional molded relief decoration became popular. Representational motifs largely replaced the earlier abstract decorations. Birds and flowers were particularly evident, but other subjects — lions, flags, and clipper ships — are found. Some figurines, mainly of dogs and lions, were made in this medium. Sometimes a name, usually that of the potter, was die-stamped onto a piece.
As more and more large kilns were built to create the high-fired stoneware, experiments revealed that the same clay used to produce low-fired red ware could produce a stronger, paler pottery if fired at a hotter temperature. The result was yellow ware, used largely for serviceable items; but a further development was Rockingham ware — one of the most important American ceramics of the nineteenth century. (The name of the ware was probably derived from its resemblance to English brown-glazed earthenware made in South Yorkshire.) It was created by adding a brown glaze to the fired clay, usually giving the finished product a mottled appearance. Various methods of spattering or sponging the glaze onto the ware account for the extremely wide variations in color and add to the interest of collecting Rockingham. An advanced form of Rockingham was flint enamel, created by dusting metallic powders onto the Rockingham glaze to produce brilliant varicolored streaks. Articles for nearly every household activity and ornament could be bought in Rockingham ware: dishes and bowls, of course; also bedpans, foot warmers, cuspidors, lamp bases, doorknobs, molds, picture frames, even curtain tiebacks. All these items are highly collectible today and are eagerly sought. A few Rockingham specialties command particular affection among collectors and correspondingly high prices.
1. Why did the potters discussed in the passage change the kind of pottery they made?
A) They discovered a new kind of clay.
B) They were compensation for the loss of an overseas supplier.
C) They studied new techniques in Europe.
D) The pottery they had been producing was not very strong.
2. The word ornate in line 7 is closest in meaning to
A) elaborate
B) puzzling
C) durable
D) common
3. The passage suggests that the earliest stoneware
A) was decorated with simple, abstract designs
B) used three-dimensional decorations
C) was valued for its fancy decorations
D) had no decoration
4. How did yellow ware achieve its distinctive color?
A) by sponging on a glaze
B) by dusting on metallic powders
C) by brown-glazing
D) by firing at a high temperature
5. The phrase derived from in line 19 is closest in meaning to
A) ruined by
B) warned against
C) based on
D) sold by
6. The word It in line 20 refers to
A) red ware
B) yellow ware
C) Rockingham ware
D) English brown-glazed earthenware
7. The word Various in line 21 is closest in meaning to
A) complicated
B) accepted
C) careful
D) different
8. The phrase account for in line 22 is closest in meaning to
A) explain
B) restrict
C) finance
D) supplement
9. What was special about flint enamel?
A) its even metallic shine
B) its mottled appearance
C) its spattered effect
D) its varicolored streaks
10. Which of the following kinds of Rockingham ware were probably produced in the greatest
quantity?
A) picture frames
B) dishes and bowls
C) curtain tiebacks
D) doorknobs
11. The passage would most probably continue with a discussion of
A) what bedpans, foot warmers, and cuspidors were used for
B) well-known, modern-day potters who make Rockingham ware
C) examples of Rockingham ware that collectors especially want
D) pieces of Rockingham ware that are inexpensive in today's market
PASSAGE 68 BAADC CDADB C
篇3:托福阅读理解真题整合
Newspaper publishers in the United States have long been enthusiastic users and distributors of weather maps. Although some newspapers that had carried the United States Weather Bureau's national weather map in 1912 dropped it once the novelty had passed, many continued to print the daily weather chart provided by their local forecasting office. In the 1930's, when interest in aviation and progress in air-mass analysis made weather patterns more newsworthy, additional newspapers started or resumed the daily weather map. In 1935, The Associated Press (AP) news service inaugurated its WirePhoto network and offered subscribing newspapers morning and afternoon weather maps redrafted by the AP's Washington, B.C., office from charts provided by the government agency. Another news service, United Press International (UPI), developed a competing Photowire network and also provided timely weather maps for both morning and afternoon newspapers. After the United States government launched a series of weather satellites in 1966, both the AP and UPI offered cloud-cover photos obtained from the Weather Bureau.
In the late 1970's and early 1980's, the weather map became an essential ingredient in the redesign of the American newspaper. News publishers, threatened by increased competition from television for readers' attention, sought to package the news more conveniently and attractively. In 1982, many publishers felt threatened by the new USA Today, a national daily newspaper that used a page-wide, full-color weather map as its key design element. That the weather map in USA Today did not include information about weather fronts and pressures attests to the largely symbolic role it played. Nonetheless, competing local and metropolitan newspapers responded in a variety of ways. Most substituted full-color temperature maps for the standard weather maps, while others dropped the comparatively drab satellite photos or added regional forecast maps with pictorial symbols to indicate rainy, snowy, cloudy, or clear conditions. A few newspapers, notably The New York Times, adopted a highly informative yet less visually prominent weather map that was specially designed to explain an important recent or imminent weather event. Ironically, a newspaper's richest, most instructive weather maps often are comparatively small and inconspicuous.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The differences between government and newspaper weather forecasting in the United
States.
(B) The history of publishing weather maps in United States newspapers
(C) A comparison of regional and national weather reporting in the United States.
(D) Information that forms the basis for weather forecasting in the United States
2. The word resumed in line 7 is closest in meaning to
(A) began again
(B) held back
(C) thought over
(D) referred to
3. According to the passage , one important reason why newspapers printed daily weather maps
during the first half of the twentieth century was
(A) the progress in printing technology
(B) a growing interest in air transportation
(C) a change in atmospheric conditions
(D) the improvement of weather forecasting techniques
4. What regular service did The Associated Press and United Press International begin to offer
subscribing newspapers in the 1930's?
(A) A new system of weather forecasting
(B) An air-mass analysis
(C) Twice daily weather maps
(D) Cloud-cover photographs
5. The phrase attests to in line 21 is closest in meaning to
(A) makes up for
(B) combines with
(C) interferes with
(D) gives evidence of
6. The word others in line 24 refers to
(A) newspapers
(B) ways
(C) temperature maps
(D) weather maps
7. The word drab in line 24 is closest in meaning to
(A) precise
(B) poor
(C) simple
(D) dull
8. In contrast to the weather maps of USA Today, weather maps in The New York Times tended to
be
(A) printed in foil color
(B) included for symbolic reasons
(C) easily understood by the readers
(D) filled with detailed information
9. The word prominent in line 27 is closest in meaning to
(A) complex
(B) noticeable
(C) appealing
(D) perfect
10. The author uses the term Ironically in line 28 to indicate that a weather map's appearance
(A) is not important to newspaper publishers
(B) does not always indicate how much information it provides
(C) reflects how informative a newspaper can be
(D) often can improve newspaper sales
PASSAGE 69 BABCD ADDBB
篇4:托福阅读理解真题整合
The origins of nest-building remain obscure, but current observations of nest-building activities provide evidence of their evolution. Clues to this evolutionary process can be found in the activities of play and in the behavior and movements of birds during mating, such as incessant pulling at strips of vegetation or scraping of the soil. During the early days of the reproductive cycle, the birds seem only to play with the building materials. In preparation for mating, they engage in activities that resemble nest-building, and continue these activities throughout and even after the mating cycle. Effective attempts at construction occur only after mating.
Although nest-building is an instinctive ability, there is considerable adaptability in both site selection and use of materials, especially with those species which build quite elaborate constructions. Furthermore, some element of learning is often evident since younger birds do not build as well as their practiced elders. Young ravens, for example, first attempt to build with sticks of quite unsuitable size, while a jackdaw's first nest includes virtually any movable object. The novelist John Steinbeck recorded the contents of a young osprey nest built in his garden, which included three shirts, a bath towel, and one arrow.
Birds also display remarkable behavior in collecting building materials. Crows have been seen to tear off stout green twigs, and sparrowhawks will dive purposefully onto a branch until it snaps and then hang upside down to break it off. Golden eagles, over generations of work, construct enormous nests. One of these, examined after it had been dislodged by high winds, weighed almost two tons and included foundation branches almost two meters long. The carrying capacity of the eagles, however, is only relative to their size and most birds are able to carry an extra load of just over twenty percent of their body weight.
1. The word obscure in line 1 is closest in meaning to
(A) interesting
(B) unclear
(C) imperfect
(D) complex
2. According to the passage , which of the following activities is characteristic of the early part of the reproductive cycle of birds?
(A) Selecting a mate
(B) Collecting nest-building materials
(C) Playing with nest-building materials
(D) Building a nest
3. The word display in line 17 is closest in meaning to
(A) communicate
(B) imitate
(C) initiate
(D) exhibit
4. The novelist John Steinbeck is mentioned in line 14 because he
(A) conducted a scientific study on the behavior of ospreys
(B) was the first to describe where ospreys built their nests
(C) described the materials ospreys can use to build their nests
(D) compared the size of osprey nests with the nests of other species
5. Which of the following birds are mentioned as those that build nests that include unusual
objects?
(A) Ravens
(B) Ospreys
(C) Crows
(D) Sparrowhawks
6. According to the passage , when gathering materials to build their nests, sparrowhawks do
which of the following?
(A) Hang upside down
(B) Select only green twigs
(C) Use objects blowing in the wind
(D) Collect more branches than necessary
7. The word these in line 20 refers to
(A) golden eagles
(B) generations
(C) winds
(D) nests
8. The word load in line 23 is closest in meaning to
(A) weight
(B) number
(C) section
(D) level
9. The author mentions twenty percent in line 23 to indicate that
(A) eagles are twenty percent bigger than most birds
(B) twenty percent of all nests include foundation branches
(C) the nests of eagles are twenty percent of larger than those of other birds
(D) birds can carry twenty percent more of their own weight
PASSAGE 70 BCDCB ADAD
篇5:TOEFL托福阅读真题整合
PASSAGE 31
Rent control is the system whereby the local government tells building owners how much they can charge their tenants in rent. In the United States, rent controls date back to at least World War II.
In 1943 the federal government imposed rent controls to help solve the problem of housing shortages during wartime. The federal program ended after the war, but in some locations, including New York City, controls continued. Under New York's controls, a landlord generally cannot raise rents on apartments as long as the tenants continue to renew their leases. In places such as Santa Monica, California, rent controls are more recent. They were spurred by the inflation of the 1970's, which, combined with California's rapid population growth, pushed housing prices, as well as rents, to record levels. In 1979 Santa Monica's municipal government ordered landlords to roll back their rents to the levels charged in 1978. Future rents could only go up by two-thirds as much as any increase in the overall price level.
In any housing market, rental prices perform three functions: (1) promoting the efficient maintenance of existing housing and stimulating the construction of new housing, (2) allocating existing scarce housing among competing claimants, and (3) rationing use of existing housing by potential renters.
One result of rent control is a decrease in the construction of new rental units. Rent controls have artificially depressed the most important long-term determinant of profitability — rents. Consider some examples. In a recent year in Dallas, Texas, with a 16 percent rental vacancy rate but no rent control laws, 11,000 new housing units were built. In the same year, in San Francisco, California, only 2,000 units were built. The major difference? San Francisco has only a 1.6 percent vacancy rate but stringent rent control laws. In New York City, except for government-subsidized construction, the only rental units being built are luxury units, which are exempt from controls. In Santa Monica, California, new apartments are not being constructed. New office rental space and commercial developments are, however. They are exempt from rent controls.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The construction of apartments in the United States.
(B) Causes and effects of rent control
(C) The fluctuations of rental prices
(D) The shortage of affordable housing in the United States.
2. The word They in line 9 refers to
(A) the tenants
(B) their leases
(C) places
(D) rent controls.
3. Which of the following was NOT a reason for the introduction of rent controls in Santa Monica,California?
(A) rapid population growth
(B) inflation
(C) economic conditions during wartime
(D) record-high housing prices
4. The phrase roll back in line 11 is closest in meaning to
(A) credit
(B) measure
(C) vary
(D) reduce
5. The word stimulating in line 15 is closest in meaning to
(A) experimenting with
(B) identifying
(C) estimating
(D) encouraging
6. It can be inferred that the purpose of rent control is to
(A) protect tenants
(B) promote construction
(C) increase vacancy rates
(D) decrease sales of rental units
7. The word depressed in line 19 is closest in meaning to
(A) saddened
(B) created
(C) lowered
(D) defeated
8. The information in the last paragraph supports which of the following statements?
(A) San Francisco has eliminated its rent control laws.
(B) Rent control leads to a reduction in the construction of housing units
(C) Luxury apartments are rarely built when there is rent control
(D) There is a growing need for government-subsidized housing.
9. According to the passage , which of the following cities does NOT currently have rent controls?
(A) Santa Monica
(B) Dallas
(C) San Francisco
(D) New York City
10. The word stringent in line 23 is closest in meaning to
(A) straightforward
(B) strict
(C) expanded
(D) efficient
11. According to the passage , which of the following is NOT exempt from rent control?
(A) Luxury apartments
(B) Commercial development
(C) Moderately priced apartments
(D) Office space.
PASSAGE 31 BDCDD ACBBB C
篇6:托福阅读真题TOEFL整合
PASSAGE 26
In July of 1994, an astounding series of events took place. The world anxiously watched as, every few hours, a hurtling chunk of comet plunged into the atmosphere of Jupiter. All of the twenty-odd fragments, collectively called comet Shoemaker-Levy 9 after its discoverers, were once part of the same object, now dismembered and strung out along the same orbit. This cometary train, glistening like a string of pearls, had been first glimpsed only a few months before its fateful impact with Jupiter, and rather quickly scientists had predicted that the fragments were on a collision course with the giant planet. The impact caused an explosion clearly visible from Earth, a bright flaming fire that quickly expanded as each icy mass incinerated itself. When each fragment slammed at 60 kilometers per second into the dense atmosphere, its immense kinetic energy was transformed into heat, producing a superheated fireball that was ejected back through the tunnel the fragment had made a few seconds earlier. The residues from these explosions left huge black marks on the face of Jupiter, some of which have stretched out to form dark ribbons.
Although this impact event was of considerable scientific import, it especially piqued public curiosity and interest. Photographs of each collision made the evening television newscast and were posted on the Internet. This was possibly the most open scientific endeavor in history. The face of the largest planet in the solar system was changed before our very eyes. And for the very first time, most of humanity came to fully appreciate the fact that we ourselves live on a similar target, a world subject to catastrophe by random assaults from celestial bodies. That realization was a surprise to many, but it should not have been. One of the great truths revealed by the last few decades of planetary exploration is that collisions between bodies of all sizes are relatively commonplace, at least in geologic terms, and were even more frequent in the early solar system.
1. The passage mentions which of the following with respect to the fragments of comet
Shoemaker-Levy 9?
(A) They were once combine in a larger body.
(B) Some of them burned up before entering the atmosphere of Jupiter.
(C) Some of them are still orbiting Jupiter.
(D) They have an unusual orbit.
2. The word collectively in line 3 is closest in meaning to
(A) respectively
(B) popularly
(C) also
(D) together
3. The author compares the fragments of comet Shoemaker-Levy 9 to all of the following EXCEPT
(A) a dismembered body
(B) a train
(C) a pearl necklace
(D) a giant planet
4. Before comet Shoemaker-Levy 9 hit Jupiter in July 1994, scientists
(A) had been unaware of its existence
(B) had been tracking it for only a few months
(C) had observed its breakup into twenty-odd fragments
(D) had decided it would not collide with the planet
5. Before the comet fragments entered the atmosphere of Jupiter, they were most likely
(A) invisible
(B) black
(C) frozen
(D) exploding
6. Superheated fireballs were produced as soon as the fragments of comet Shoemaker- Levy 9
(A) hit the surface of Jupiter
(B) were pulled into Jupiter's orbit
(C) were ejected back through the tunnel
(D) entered the atmosphere of Jupiter
7. The phrase incinerated itself in line 9 is closest in meaning to
(A) burned up
(B) broke into smaller pieces
(C) increased its speed
(D) grew in size
8. Which of the following is mentioned as evidence of the explosions that is still visible on
Jupiter?
(A) fireballs
(B) ice masses
(C) black marks
(D) tunnels
9. Paragraph 2 discusses the impact of the comet Shoemaker-Levy 9 primarily in terms of
(A) its importance as an event of great scientific significance
(B) its effect on public awareness of the possibility of damage to Earth
(C) the changes it made to the surface of Jupiter
(D) the effect it had on television broadcasting
10. The target in line 20 most probably referred to
(A) Earth
(B) Jupiter
(C) the solar system
(D) a comet
PASSAGE 26 ADDBC DACBA
篇7:托福阅读真题TOEFL整合
PASSAGE 29
During the second half of the nineteenth century, the production of food and feed crops in the United States rose at an extraordinarily rapid rate. Corn production increased by four and a half times, hay by five times, oats and wheat by seven times. The most crucial factor behind this phenomenal upsurge in productivity was the widespread adoption of labor-saving machinery by northern farmers. By 1850 horse-drawn reaping machines that cut grain were being introduced into the major grain-growing regions of the country. Horse-powered threshing machines to separate the seeds from the plants were already in general use. However, it was the onset of the Civil War in 1861 that provided the great stimulus for the mechanization of northern agriculture. With much of the labor force inducted into the army and with grain prices on the rise, northern farmers rushed to avail themselves of the new labor-saving equipment. In 1860 there were approximately 80,000 reapers in the country; five years later there were 350,000.
After the close of the war in 1865, machinery became ever more important in northern agriculture, and improved equipment was continually introduced. By 1880 a self-binding reaper had been perfected that not only cut the grain, but also gathered the stalks and bound them with twine. Threshing machines were also being improved and enlarged, and after 1870 they were increasingly powered by steam engines rather than by horses. Since steam-powered threshing machines were costly items — running from $ 1,000 to $4,000 — they were usually owned by custom thresher owners who then worked their way from farm to farm during the harvest season. Combines were also coming into use on the great wheat ranches in California and the Pacific Northwest. These ponderous machines — sometimes pulled by as many as 40 horses — reaped the grain, threshed it, and bagged it, all in one simultaneous operation.
The adoption of labor-saving machinery had a profound effect upon the sale of agricultural operations in the northern states — allowing farmers to increase vastly their crop acreage. By the end of century, a farmer employing the new machinery could plant and harvest two and half times as much corn as a farmer had using hand methods 50 years before.
1. What aspect of farming in the United States in the nineteenth century does the passage mainly
discuss?
(A) How labor-saving machinery increased crop Production
(B) Why southern farms were not as successful as Successful as northern farms
(C) Farming practices before the Civil War
(D) The increase in the number of people farming
2. The word crucial in line 4 is closest in meaning to
(A) obvious
(B) unbelievable
(C) important
(D) desirable
3. The phrase avail themselves in line 11 is closest in meaning to
(A) take care
(B) make use
(C) get rid
(D) do more
4. According to the passage , why was the Civil War a stimulus for mechanization?
(A) The army needed more grain in order to feed the soldiers.
(B) Technology developed for the war could also the used by farmers.
(C) It was hoped that harvesting more grain would lower the price of grain.
(D) Machines were needed to replace a disappearing labor force.
5. The passage supports which of the following statements about machinery after the Civil War?
(A) Many farmers preferred not to use the new machinery.
(B) Returning laborers replaced the use of machinery.
(C) The use of farm machinery continued to increase.
(D) Poor-quality machinery slowed the pace of crop production.
6. Combines and self-binding reapers were similar because each
(A) could perform more than one function
(B) required relatively little power to operate
(C) was utilized mainly in California
(D) required two people to operate
7. The word they in line 19 refers to
(A) grain stalks
(B) threshing machines
(C) steam engines
(D) horses
8. It can be inferred from the passage that most farmers did not own threshing machines because
(A) farmers did not know how to use the new machines
(B) farmers had no space to keep the machines
(C) thresher owner had chance to buy the machines before farmers did
(D) the machines were too expensive for every farmer to own
9. The word ponderous in line 21 is closest in meaning to
(A) advanced
(B) heavy
(C) complex
(D) rapid
PASSAGE 29 ACBDC ABDB
篇8:TOEFL托福阅读真题整合
PASSAGE 32
By 1776 the fine art of painting as it had developed in western Europe up to this time had been introduced into the American colonies through books and prints, European visitors and immigrants, and traveling colonists who brought back copies (and a few original) of old master paintings and acquaintance with European art institutions.
By the outbreak of the Revolution against British rule in 1776, the status of the artists had already undergone change. In the mid-eighteenth century, painters had been willing to assume such artisan-related tasks as varnishing, gilding teaching, keeping shops, and painting wheel carriages, houses, and signs. The terminology by which artists were described at the time suggests their status: limner was usually applied to the anonymous portrait painter up to the 1760's; painter characterized anyone who could paint a flat surface. By the second half of the century, colonial artists who were trained in England or educated in the classics rejected the status of laborer and thought of themselves as artists. Some colonial urban portraitists, such as John Singleton Copley, Benjamin West, and Charles Wilson Peale, consorted with affluent patrons. Although subject to fluctuations in their economic status, all three enjoyed sufficient patronage to allow them to maintain an image of themselves as professional artists, an image indicated by their custom of signing their paintings. A few art collectors James Bowdoin III of Boston, William Byrd of Virginian, and the Aliens and Hamiltons of Philadelphia introduced European art traditions to those colonists privileged to visit their galleries, especially aspiring artists, and established in their respective communities the idea of the value of art and the need for institutions devoted to its encouragement.
Although the colonists tended to favor portraits, they also accepted landscapes, historical works, and political engravings as appropriate artistic subjects. With the coming of independence from the British Crown, a sufficient number of artists and their works were available to serve nationalistic purposes. The achievements of the colonial artists, particularly those of Copley, West, and Peale, lent credence to the boast that the new nation was capable of encouraging genius and that political liberty was congenial to the development of taste — a necessary step before art could assume an important role in the new republic.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) European influence on colonial American painting
(B) The importance of patronage to artist
(C) The changing status of artists in the American colonies in the eighteenth century
(D) Subjects preferred by artists in the American colonies in the eighteenth century.
2. The word outbreak in line 5 is closest in meaning to
(A) cause
(B) beginning
(C) position
(D) explanation
3. The word undergone in line 6 is closest in meaning to
(A) led to
(B) transformed
(C) preferred
(D) experienced
4. According to the passage , before the American Revolution the main task of limners was to
(A) paint wheel carriages
(B) paint portraits
(C) varnish furniture
(D) paint flat surfaces
5. It can be inferred from the passage that artists who were trained in England
(A) considered artists to be superior to painters
(B) barely painted portraitists
(C) were often very wealthy
(D) imitated English painters
6. The word consorted in line 14 is closest in meaning to
(A) made decisions
(B) studies
(C) agreed
(D) associated
7. The word sufficient in line 16 is closest in meaning to
(A) adequate
(B) temporary
(C) friendly
(D) expensive
8. According to the passage , artists such as Copley, West and Peal signed their paintings
(A) increased the monetary value of the paintings
(B) made it more difficult for other artists to copy the paintings
(C) supported the artists' image of professionalism
(D) distinguished colonial American artists from European artists
9. The author mentions James Bowdoin III and William Byrd in line 17 as examples of which of
the following?
(A) Art gallery owners who displayed only European art
(B) Art collectors who had a profound influence on American attitudes toward art
(C) Artists who gave financial support to other artists
(D) Patrons whose helped to encourage artisans to become artists
10. With which of the following would the author be most likely to agree?
(A) Countries that have not had a political revolution are unlikely to develop great art.
(B) The most successful art collectors are usually artists themselves.
(C) The value of colonial American paintings decreased after the Revolution.
(D) Colonial artists made an important contribution to the evolving culture of the new nation.
PASSAGE 32 CBDBA DACBD
篇9:TOEFL托福阅读真题整合
PASSAGE 33
Researchers in the field of psychology have found that one of the best ways to make an important decision, such as choosing a university to attend or a business to invest in, involves the utilization of a decision worksheet. Psychologists who study optimization compare the actual decisions made by people to theoretical ideal decisions to see how similar they are. Proponents of the worksheet procedure believe that it will yield optimal, that is, the best decisions. Although there are several variations on the exact format that worksheets can take, they are all similar in their essential aspects. Worksheets require defining the problem in a clear and concise way and then listing all possible solutions to the problem. Next, the pertinent considerations that will be affected by each decision are listed, and the relative importance of each consideration or consequence is determined. Each consideration is assigned a numerical value to reflect its relative importance. A decision is mathematically calculated by adding these values together. The alternative with the highest number of points emerges as the best decision.
Since most important problems are multifaceted, there are several alternatives to choose from, each with unique advantages and disadvantages. One of the benefits of a pencil and paper decision-making procedure is that it permits people to deal with more variables than their minds can generally comprehend and remember. On the average, people can keep about seven ideas in their minds at once. A worksheet can be especially useful when the decision involves a large number of variables with complex relationships. A realistic example for many college students is the question What will I do after graduation? A graduate might seek a position that offers specialized training, pursue an advanced degree, or travel abroad for a year.
A decision-making worksheet begins with a succinct statement of the problem that will also help to narrow it. It is important to be clear about the distinction between long-range and immediate goals because long-range goals often involve a different decision than short-range ones. Focusing on long-range goals, a graduating student might revise the question above to What will I do after graduation that will lead to successful career?
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) A tool to assist in making complex decisions.
(B) A comparison of actual decisions and ideal decisions
(C) Research on how people make decisions
(D) Differences between long-range and short-range decision making
2. The word essential in line 7 is closest in meaning to
(A) introductory
(B) changeable
(C) beneficial
(D) fundamental
3. The word pertinent in line 9 is closest in meaning to
(A) relevant
(B) preceding
(C) insightful
(D) responsive
4. Of the following steps, which occurs before the others in making a decision worksheet?
(A) Listing the consequences of each solution
(B) Calculating a numerical summary of each solution
(C) Deciding which consequences are most important
(D) Writing down all possible solutions
5. According to decision-worksheet theory, an optimal decision is defined as one that
(A) has the fewest variables to consider
(B) uses the most decision worksheets
(C) has the most points assigned to it
(D) is agreed to by the greatest number of people
6. The author develops the discussion in paragraph 1 by means of
(A) describing a process
(B) classifying types of worksheets
(C) providing historical background
(D) explaining a theory
7. The author states that On the average, people can keep about seven ideas in their minds at
once (lines 17-18) to explain that
(A) most decisions involve seven steps
(B) human mental capacity has limitations
(C) some people have difficulty making minor as well as major decisions
(D) people can learn to keep more than seven ideas in their minds with practice
8. The word succinct in line 24 is closest in meaning to
(A) creative
(B) satisfactory
(C) personal
(D) concise
9. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage ?
(A) Proponents (line 5)
(B) Optimal (line 5)
(C) Variables (line 17)
(D) Long-range goals (line 25)
10. The word it in line 24 refers to
(A) worksheet
(B) problem
(C) distinction
(D) decision
11. The word revise in line 26 is closest in meaning to
(A) ask
(B) explain
(C) change
(D) predict
PASSAGE 33 ADADC ABDBB C
篇10:托福阅读真题TOEFL整合
PASSAGE 30
Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects — it is estimated that 90 percent of the world's species have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of insects for examining patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general public. Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and conservation issues such as diversity.
Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions. For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed.
A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and plant groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions, rather man between them, is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly personal communication citations, even for vertebrates. In other words, unlike comparison between temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation phase.
In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized.
1. Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) Their physical characteristics
(B) Their names
(C) Their adaptation to different habitats
(D) Their variety
2. The word consequence in line 2 is closest in meaning to
(A) result
(B) explanation
(C) analysis
(D) requirement
3. Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues
because they
(A) are simple in structure
(B) are viewed positively by people
(C) have been given scientific names
(D) are found mainly in temperate climates
4. The word striking in line 8 is closest in meaning to
(A) physical
(B) confusing
(C) noticeable
(D) successful
5. The word exceed in line 11 is closest in meaning to
(A) locate
(B) allow
(C) go beyond
(D) come close to
6. All of the following are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity
EXCEPT
(A) differences between temperate and tropical zones
(B) patterns of distribution of species in each region
(C) migration among temperate and tropical zones
(D) variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants
7. The author mentions tropical Asia in lines 19 as an example of a location where
(A) butterfly behavior varies with climate
(B) a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established
(C) butterflies are affected by human populations
(D) documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species
8. Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?
(A) European butterfly habitats
(B) Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions
(C) Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region
(D) Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups
9. The word generated in line 26 is closest in meaning to
(A) requested
(B) caused
(C) assisted
(D) estimated
PASSAGE 30 DABCC CBCB
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